Editor for this issue: Jody Huellmantel <jody
linguistlist.org>
Impressionistically, it would seem that if a language has both stress and long vowels, then at least some of these long vowels are bound to occur in stressed syllables. Does anybody know of any references where this has been stated as a universal constraint or a principle of some sort or even just a tendency? Marc PicardMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I am posting this on behalf of a student of mine who is having a terrible time finding any references on the establishment of the Inland North dialect as the U.S. broadcast standard. She has scoured libraries and the Internet and says she has come up with nothing. Since I know the American broadcast networks issue pronunciation guides, it seems there must be some kind of loose formal mechanism for maintaining dialect standards. I also know that when I was a very small child (late 1950s) more American announcers seemed to have nonrhotic accents than one hears on TV now. Can anyone steer my student to materials that would explain how this accent was established as "neutral"? We'd be grateful. James KirchnerMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
If you know a language which involves vowel reduction to schwa in EVERY unstressed syllable, PLEASE let me know. Some languages, such as Russian, have vowel reduction sensitive to position such that unstressed (unaccented?) vowels are reduced to schwa in a posttonic syllable, but I exclude those languages. I will really appreciate it if you give me information about languages in which every unstressed vowel gets neutralized to schwa, and I will post the responses later. Thank you, Joo-Kyeong LeeMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue