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We are posting the following messages with some trepidation, because we don't want to further disseminate quotations from a message we should never have posted in the first place. However, we believe that those criticized deserve the right of reply, and to delete the message they quote would destroy the coherence of the responses. Hence, we are once again asking for subscriber cooperation; please take this posting in the spirit in which it is meant (i.e. as an end to ad hominem interchanges).Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
> > > From: "Patrick C. Ryan": > > > > > > Personally, I favor phonetic spelling of English so that GHOTI cannot be > > > read as /fish/ as GBS correctly observed it could be. > > Peter Daniels: > > > <GHOTI> cannot be read as /fiS/, regardless of what the ill-informed > > Shaw suggested. Patrick Ryan again: > > After having read what Shaw has written and what you have only edited, my > personal judgment is that George Bernard Shaw *demonstrated* a breadth of > knowledge that you may have but have never (been able to demonstrate?) > demonstrated. > > GBS is one of the greatest literary figures of English literature, and for > you, who has no status as a writer or a literary critic, to characterize him > as "ill-informed" shows utmost poor judgment. Rather than snip these ad hominem remarks (Shaw's uncontrovertible literary stature in no way imbues him with more expertise in the design of writing systems than a scholar who has researched and published extensively in the area of the history of written language) and paraphrase the content, I've decided to leave them. But, I have a much more serious question in this context. And that is about the actual attribution of the GHOTI remark. I've seen it widely reported as above, always attributed to Shaw. But I have absolutely *never* seen a specific citation to *where* Shaw said this. In contrast, Roger Brown, on p. 64 of _Words and Things_, provides a very specific reference to Shaw's remarks on how stupid it is to spell _debt_ with a <b> (the preface to RA Wilson's _Miraculous Birth of Language_ (Philosophical Library, 1948)). Can anyone provide a comparable citation for the GHOTI=fish claim? I'm not interested in a list of people who have in print attributed the claim to Shaw, or arguments that it's plausibly Shavian (that's not in doubt). I want to know where he said it. I suppose I'd be interested in knowing when it was first attributed to Shaw, if we can't find an actual citation. Alice Faber faberMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuehaskins.yale.edu
> > > From: "Patrick C. Ryan" <proto-languageMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueemail.msn.com> > > > > > > Personally, I favor phonetic spelling of English so that GHOTI cannot be > > > read as /fish/ as GBS correctly observed it could be. > > > > <GHOTI> cannot be read as /fiS/, regardless of what the ill-informed > > Shaw suggested. > > After having read what Shaw has written and what you have only edited, my > personal judgment is that George Bernard Shaw *demonstrated* a breadth of > knowledge that you may have but have never (been able to demonstrate?) > demonstrated. > > GBS is one of the greatest literary figures of English literature, and for > you, who has no status as a writer or a literary critic, to characterize him > as "ill-informed" shows utmost poor judgment. > > <gh> represents [f] only in the context <ou__> (and then > > only in a handful of forms); > > Perhaps if Peter was a writer, he might know that the above is, of course, > expectedly incorrect. The last time I checked, educated people pronounced > <laugh> as /laf/. Does he spell this word *lough? > > <o> represents [i] in a single, truly > > anomalous form, <women>; > > Well, Peter did know that word. > > and <ti> represents [S] in a readily > > identifiable closed set of Latinate suffixes (details available in any > > compendium on English spelling). > > Again, Peter should stick to editing what other say about writing systems. > > The word <partial>, for example, is composed of the stem part- and the > suffix -ia:l-. Many speakers pronounce it /par-sh6l/. > > In fact, it is a generally observable phenomenon for palatalized apicals > (and dorsals) to be fricatized. > > > Shaw was simply wrong to suggest that an orthography must or should be > > surface-phonetic, > > I find "simply" insufficient to persuade me that GBS' suggestion was poorly > conceived. > > and the Shaw Alphabet devised under the terms of his > > will is singularly ill suited for the representation of English (because > > of insufficiently distinct letterforms, > > I think that a reader of Chinese might immediately disagree. Small > differences can be perecived as easily as larger ones with proper teaching. > > in addition to the entirely > > non-morph(ophon)emic approach to spelling). > > I am not sure what this means to Peter, so I cannot comment. Sorry, I forgot Jakobson's teachings on redundancy, and overspecified my statement in an attempt at perspicuity. It suffices to say that in English <gh> does not signify [f] initially and <ti> does not signify [S] finally. There's no denying Shaw was a pretty good writer, and some of his plays are brilliant. *Pygmalion* is quite entertaining, but the philology in it and in its preface is largely rubbish. I'm surprised that some of Mr. Ryan's rhetoric -- such as the hurling of what in the US is still a rather nasty epithet, "communist," on the basis of a poster's perceived location -- is tolerated on Linguist List. - Peter T. Daniels grammatim
worldnet.att.net
Peter Daniels asks: > Why should spelling be a matter of legislation? I certainly think it shouldn't be. Until recently, I lived in a neighborhood of Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, whose name was spelled in several alternative ways: Kampong/Kampung Datuk/Datok/Dato' Keramat. Nobody was the worse for the orthographic variation. (Admittedly, in this particular case, the variation is a reflection not of enlightened liberalism but rather of the inefficiency of the obsessively prescriptive official Malaysian language agency, the Dewan Bahasa dan Pustaka -- but this is beside the point.) David Gil Department of Linguistics Max Planck Institute for Evolutionary Anthropology Inselstrasse 22 D-04103 Leipzig Germany tel: 49-341-9952310 fax: 49-341-9952119 email: gilMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueeva.mpg.de
Alexis Manaster-Ramer wrote "I am puzzled by John Rennison's statement: 'Alexis Manaster-Ramer, Martin Haspelmath and Gisbert Fanselow make several interesting points, but given the international coverage of the Linguist List and the claim of Linguistics to universality, much of what they say is (forgive me -- I say it as a citizen of Austria, where German is the official language) parochial. Put pointedly: Not only were the people who "reformed" German spelling not linguists; not a single linguistic criterion has been used in the so-called reform.'" I suggest he take a world atlas to hand, or a globe, or the Ethnologue database. German isn't a large language. But my point was that the DISCUSSION is parochial. Why not take a look over the fence, instead of continually turning over the old internal sh** that won't get anyone anywhere? Peter T. Daniels wrote "> 1. One-to-one correspondence between segments and graphemes. (It's > possible with the existing alphabet.) Then every dialect has its own spelling?" Yes, of course it has. But assuming that a standard language also has a pronunciation, then the standard spelling will be the spelling of that "dialect". "> 2. Compatibility with the spelling systems of other > (esp. neighbouring) languages. You mean, German should be spelled more like Dutch, Danish, or Polish? I don't think so!" Yes indeed. Double vowels for long vowels (Dutch), a single symbol for "sch" (Polish -- at least for the palatalized one. But Czech and Serbo-Croatian would be better). "> And some pseudo-linguistic criteria that could be abandoned are: > > 1. Lexical morphemes should always be spelled the same way. (Untenable > for ablaut verbs anyway) This one has stood English in good stead for quite a few centuries." I thought "swim - swam - swum" had different vowels. But the point is that no one needs it anyway. Kids get by fine with the spoken language. I didn't mention the fact that English has a lousy spelling system because I thought most linguists were aware of that. Finally -- if we're only discussing this so that German can "get by", then we don't need a reform at all. But if we reform the spelling, couldn't it be to something that linguists CAN subscribe to? John Rennison ********************************************* (Ao. Univ.-Prof. Dr.) John R. Rennison Dept. of Linguistics, University of Vienna Inst. f. Sprachwissenschaft e-mail: johnMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueling.univie.ac.at Berggasse 11 A-1090 Wien Fax: +43 1 3155347 Austria / Europe Tel.: +43 1 3103886/32 http://www.univie.ac.at/linguistics/personal/john