Editor for this issue: Martin Jacobsen <marty
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On Sun, 29 Mar 1998, The LINGUIST List wrote: > > Date: Sat, 28 Mar 1998 14:13:16 +0000 > From: "Robert R. Ratcliffe" <ratcliffMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuefs.tufs.ac.jp> > Subject: Re: 9.453, Disc: State of Comparative Linguistics > > What basis, indeed what right, do we have to draw such inferences? > The best answer, the correct answer, is or should be that we base > our inferences on a body of case studies of actually observed > changes, or on more general principles of change derived from this > body of evidence. That is, given a particular pattern in the data > (a sound The basis of drawing such inferences actually less with a body of case studies than on rational reasoning or at least one particular method of reasoning, namely probability theory. The only thing we need to do is to demonstrate that a state of affairs which cannot be due to chance or randomness or coincidence exists. IF the reason for such a state of affairs is not chance/coincidence then the options we have left are that it is due to some other process such as borrowing, or descent from the same language. > correspondence, for example), we conclude that it must have come > about as a result of one particular process, or could only have come > about as a result of one of two or three possible processes, because > in all cases in which this pattern is found in languages whose > history is known, this is the process, or these are the processes by > which it has developed. The "method of regular sound correspondences" is the intuitive way of guaranteeing that the occurrences were not due to chance. If we see only a single example of a change we can calculate the probability of its happening due to chance just the same way as we would if we had multiple occurrences. The reason for greater faith in multiply occurring sound correspondences is that the probability of such occurrence is the product of the probabilities. Thus if the probability of a particular sound change (in a single word) is p, the probability that 3 such sound changes are due to chance is p^3 (p cubed) so that if p is something like 0.01 then p^3 is 0.001. The trick is that none of this tells us what these sound changes are due to; we simply have evidence that it is not due to chance. Therefore a few things should be kept in mind. First, it is not necessary for the sound change to be exhibited more than once. Naturally, the more the merrier but it is not necessary. Probability theory works just as well if the sound changes are not evidenced in multiples. Secondly, we should know very well that the longer the time span between languages the smaller the number of sound changes that we will be able to find. Therefore there should be no reason to insist that someone find 3 examples (or more) of say 10 sound changes. We can just as easily work with 20 sound changes with each of them being represented by a single word/lexeme. >The classic fallacy in historical linguistics is the assumption that >a particular pattern in the data (VSO word order in Celtic and >Berber, for example) necessarily or plausibly implies something (that >the languages are related, for example) which it perhaps only >possibly implies or doesn't imply at all. Unfortunately historical >linguistics generally fail to follow this procedure, and too often >draw inferences on the basis of criteria which are not explicit. IT is difficult to tell why and which idea is correct or incorrect. If we wanted to use such data one way to do so would be (as above) calculate the probability of it occurring due to chance. Since only six word orders are possible, then the odds that a language would have a particular word order should be 1/6. Therefore the odds that any two languages selected at random should have the same word order is 1/6. Nobody in any science ever does science by assuming that unlikely events happen all the time. Two languages selected at random (if every word word order is equally likely) should not have the same word order 5/6 of the time, so assuming that languages which share the same order do so because of some reason (other than chance) is quite rational. The arguments about reasoning along these lines, for example, that agglutinating languages comprise about 50% of all languages and hence agglutination is not indicative of any kind of a genetic link, are fallacious. About 50% of the world's population is considered white and no geneticist would argue that humans do not descend genetically from and display the genetic features of their ancestors. Maybe 90% of life on earth is insect life and nobody would argue that insects are not genetically related to each other more closely (in some reasonable geneticity space) than they are to humans or fish. > It is I think a grave methodological error to treat historical > linguistics as an extension of descriptive linguistics. There is a > big difference between describing a body of data and drawing > inferences on the basis of the probabilistic implications of that > data. In practical terms, the procedure outlined by Professor Teeter > would lead us to treat any features shared by the majority of a set > of related languages as retentions from the proto-language-- whereas > actual language history shows that there are two other posssible > explanations for such features-- namely drift and areal diffusion. What is at stake is the definition of "geneticity". AT present the ideas being passed of as scientific truth are held together mostly by equivocation, and rubber bands. There are basic principles of measurement which have not been taken into account at all in historical linguistics. The two fundamental characteristics of measurement instruments are validity (accuracy) and reliability (precision). When we make a measurement of a space dimension by using a ruler nobody ever thinks that anything can go wrong. First the ruler does not change its length, or we assume so. In reality it does, and surveyers who have to measure long distances using a tape have to take the temperature expansion into account. But in principle we are all quite sure that the ruler does measure length; that is what it's supposed to do. When we use a thermometer to measure heat, we are less sure but even then we can all see that the hotter it gets (as felt by our bodies) the higher the thermometer reading. However although everyone would know immediately if 100 cm is twice 50 cm, most people cannot tell if 100C (celsius) is twice 50C. In fact, it turns out that it is not. That is because the Celsius temperature scale is not an absolute (ratio) scale. Most people would have no idea if a certain change in the volume setting (loudness) of the stereo set is twice another setting (loudness). In any case, it is inconceivable in any of these measurements that an instrument can be accurate but not precise or precise and yet not accurate. This was something that popped up when psychologists started creating instruments (questionnaires) to measure various [alleged] attributes of humans. The most [in]famous of these is probably the IQ test. The same person's scores might vary by about 10% (I am guessing) depending on the day and mood. Meanwhile even a worse problem crops up; does the test really measure intelligence? So in principle we can envision some psychological measure that is accurate to 1% error but how do we know that it really measures what it is supposed to be measuring? Does the XYZ hostility test really measure hostility or aggression? Is there are difference? OR does it measure aggressiveness? That is the main problem with the methods of historical linguistics as it is being practiced. First, an instrument has been designed (a la Swadesh) which is less formal than any psychological test. Even supposing that the method can be fixed up so that it generates a number in some standard range, say 0 to 1 (i.e. in the interval [0,1]) can we say with certainty that this test measures "geneticity"? Is the instrument accurate and precise? That is where the equivocation comes in. It is circular. The test creates geneticity and geneticity is verified by the test. IN what range are the numbers produced by this test? Suppose the test (the comparative method) was fixed up so that it produced numbers about 0.8 or 0.9 for the various IE languages. Does this mean that there are no other ways of knowing about family relationships? We know that we can stick a glass tube with a liquid in it to measure temperature in some range, say from less than freezing to greater than boiling of water. But can we stick that glass tube into a blue flame of a blow torch and measure its temperature? No obviously. Does this mean that (1) the blow torch has not temperature or (2) that it is impossible to measure the temperature of the blow torch? The answers to both are obviously "no!". We can measure temperatures as high as 100 million degrees (which is required for fusion) and also thousands of degrees for measuring the temperature of boiling metals, etc. So it is an act of faith to say that the comparative method is the only way to measure geneticity when geneticity has been circularly defined in terms of the comparative method. The first thing to do is to clearly define a mathematical model of language change so that what we mean by geneticity is not ambiguous. At the same time we can use probability theory to make calculations with which we can create a fuller and more mature theory of language change. The present method suffers from lots of flaws. The main one can be understood with the example of "morphing". We have all seen on TV commercials and sci-fi movies the morphing of objects and faces into other objects and faces. Suppose we had one of those morping programs for the PC so we can run a small experiment. We start with the face of Clinton and then specify the final face to be Mao Tse Dong, and also Eddie Murphy. We then specify the number of frames in which this metamorphosis will take place. Now if we look at the any frame, say the nth frame and compare that to the n-1 frame and n+1 fram we will see that they will look almost like the nth frame. So if we look at these frames at random (statically) we can see that from one frame to the other there is such a small change that we can always say that this person on the n+1 frame is the same person as the one on the nth frame. By using induction on this we will then obviously conclude that Clinton, Eddie Murphy and Mao are the same person. This is the modern version of the sorites paradox (which comes in various flavors including the Neurath's boat version). This is what linguists have been doing all along when they were creating language families. That is what you will get if you only trace some 100 words accross time and space. This is the result if you ignore everything about language except some 100 or 200 specially selected words. This is what you get if you ignore every aspect of language except some 100 words. In order to get a grasp we should first clearly define what language is? Clearly it is more than 100 words. That is why the present state is held together by equivocation and scotch tape (or was it rubber bands?). With this kind of thinking we could demonstrate that an elephant and a dragon fly are genetically related. It's easy, start with a picture of an elephant and morph it to a dragon fly! How is this idea of geneticity of language related to biological genetics? IN genetics the father's contribution is not called "borrowing". In genetics, we are not called fish although we are descended from them. In genetics, the genetic line of a person is not decided only via the mtDNA (the mother's line). > As far as classification is concerned, there is a simple > systematic procedure for demonstrating a genetic relationship among > languages that will be universally accepted. 1) Given that there > are some points of similarity between two (or more) languages, it > has to be shown that these are not due to chance. Great Idea. > Proving that something is not due to chance is a mathematical > problem and it has to be formulated in explicitly mathematical > terms. Great idea. > 2) If a similarity is not due to chance, it is either due to > historical circumstance, or to universal properties of language > systems. In order to make a decision at this point we need to know This makes probabilistic computations more difficult because it is difficult to know what is due to universals without knowing some kind of a bound on all "theoretically possible languages". How many theoretically possible languages are there? Is it 1,000? If that is so then the very existence of only a few types (isolating, fusional, etc) itself speaks volumes. How do we go about calculating the number of possible languages? > more about language universals. I believe that one reason Altaic > became a question again is because of the work by Greenberg and > others on implicational universals. So what were thought of as, say, > five separate word-order features shared by these languages:-- SOV, > AdjN, Postpositions, RelN, GN--are now reduced to a single shared > feature. It could be the other way. Suppose I create an "index of fusion" (for example as in Comrie). Then if I create this range from 1 to 100 I now have 100 different types of languages. Or I can simply use this index along with all sorts of other indices so that probability calculations, correlation-regression analysis can be run. But all of this requires that we start to measure things. That requires what are disdainfully called "quantitative" approaches. IT is the only way of the future. PRetty soon all the world's languages' dictionaries will be available on CDROM. Anyone can write a program to analyze all that data. > enough about language universals, we don't know enough about > contact, and we haven't advanced far enough in establishing the > mathematical foundations of historical linguistics. And that finally > may be another If the definition of geneticity is changed to become more like that of biological genetics, then "borrowings" would no longer be considered mere noise but rather the contribution of another language to the creation of a language. The Latin words are as much a part of the English language now as the Germanic ones. The Gaelic speakers were probably responsible for not learning the case system of German and creating this isolating language. They also dropped some of the front rounded vowels of Germanic (u-umlaut). That is certainly a genetic component of English as much as the Germanic and Latin words in it presently. IF we keep thinking that languages change type the same way people change underwear or the way bored housewives re-arrange the furniture, historical linguistics will stay in the same rut that it has been in most of this century. > reason why classification has perhaps diminished as a research > field. For some linguists, at least, these three areas of research-- > universals, contact phenomena, and the mathematicization of > probability claims-- are all more interesting than the ostensible > 'goal' of classification. Mark Hubey Montclair State University Probability theory is common sense reduced to calculation. Pascal
I do not object to everything in Robert R. Ratcliffe's posting. It certainly is true that there is no formal or even merely rigorous exposition of the foundations of comparative linguistics--but of course the same is true of all branches of linguistics and most sciences (maybe all). It is true that we do not know enough and could know more--again that is true everywhere, with THIS difference: that there is a vocal group of scholars (to whom Dr. Ratcliffe may or may not wish to belong) within linguistics itself who are trying to forbid or prevent further progress in this field (esp. as regards classification but apparently also reconstruction) and there is no such group actively pursuing the demolition of any other branch of linguistics or any other science I know of. Moreover, when Dr. Ratcliffe says: " And that finally may be another reason why classification has perhaps diminished as a research field. For some linguists, at least, these three areas of research-- universals, contact phenomena, and the mathematicization of probability claims-- are all more interesting than the ostensible 'goal' of classification. he is presupposing something entirely false, namely, that classification HAS diminished as a research field. Nothing could be further from the truth. It is true that those of us who work in this field face a campaign of disinformation unparalleled since the days of Lysenko and Marr, but that has not SO FAR prevented work getting done, and more so than ever before. I do fear that this may not last because of the gradual but accelerating pace at which the whole subject of comparative linguistics is being "diminished" in linguistics departments, esp. in North America. But fortunately anthropology departments or in my own case computer science ones have not been nearly so determined to do away with the subject. So at least for a time we are OK and we may indeed survive. In addition, speaking as someone who has done extensive work in universals and mathematical linguistics and borrowings, I am puzzled by the suggestion that these are more interesting than classification. But I think Dr. Ratcliffe is being coy here. Esp. his reference to "the mathematicization of probability claims" seems to me to suggest that he is advocating the acceptance of the mathematically illiterate claims of authors who try to abuse probability theory as a way of closing off progress in comparative linguistics. If so, he should perhaps consult the published work where these problems were disposed of some time ago--or find out what probabilists have had to say on the subject. In short, GENUINE work on universals, contact phenomena, and mathematical models of language change is by no means inimical to further progress in comparative linguistics. Indeed, the opposite is the case. Those who ignore the results of comparative linguistics cannot ipso facto do successful work in any of these areas. Alexis MRMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue