Editor for this issue: Brett Churchill <brett
linguistlist.org>
while neither having noticed nor having seemed to remark any changes in english, i have to participate in this discussion, and since there is some emotion in it, please let me be emotional on the topic -- it's a discussion, isn't it?: what I find most striking in this discussion is the fact how many linguists still argue in terms of norm and prescriptive patterns. that prescriptive patterns usually diverge from the language use seems quite obvious to me, this topic is the basis of the everyday work of a sociolinguist, if i remember correctly. one could look at the linguistic differences between sociolects or at the attitudes linguist list readers have towards these sociolectal features. it has nothing to do with language change, however. on the other hand, analyses of why american girlies, oregoners or "venerable brits" have an identifiable sociolect would be very interesting. the same, whether PL-SG dissonances between noun and verb point to transnumeral use, or whether in an area there is another aspect system than the prescribed one, etc.. but i deny the possibility to observe language change "online" / "as observers", and i think an analysis of the situation justifies my viewpoint: 1. prescriptive grammar has a strong influence on a society where everybody has to attend school. one might see e.g. in the ongoing german orthographic reform, that under such circumstances, language change phenomena are not considered as they are in the prescriptive rule patchwork of the orthography, but one set of prescriptions is simply replaced by another one, and whether it is accepted or not, is not decided on the basis of language change phenomena, but on the basis of social power. 2. sociolectal variants can become language change features under identifiable sociological circumstances; e.g. when an ingroup defines itself through a linguistic feature and an outgroup individual wants to become an ingroup member, then exactly there is a change in the linguistic attitude of this person. if a feature is not redefined for a longer period of time, then it may loose its socially marked status and become a regular feature in this idiom. As long as the ingroup still exists as such, it will desperately look for another feature. As the euramerican culture is a patriarchat, i would thus assume that although a girl that wants to be a girlie and therefore adopts a speech style identifiable as an ingroup feature of the girlie subculture, she will succeed in being identified as a girlie, but she will not introduce language change into english, because she lacks the power of definition over the whole culture. in this case it is a form of self-stigmatisation as a member of the girlie ingroup for herself and a group-defining feature on the border of the group, and an identifying feature within. if american academics, however, more and more often "commit the sin", as it was said, to use a linguistic pattern formerly being a feature not identified socially as a feature identifying upper class ingroup members, it may perhaps become such a feature, if the individuals committing the sin start to believe that it is only a little sin, perhaps no sin at all. in this case, acceptability prepares the structure for grammaticality, and we might propose to see a language change happening. most of the time, however, and not only -- between the lines -- in this discussion, variants are used for stigmatisation, i.e. as negative features, i.e. variants are defined as features of the outgroup -- whereas the ingroup as the norm not to be questioned has no features -- or it has the feature of not having a specific feature... similarly, the so-called language change phenomena in question have been positively or negatively evaluated by those observing them, i.e. these were cases of the observation of sociolinguistic variation and not of language change. best regards, ralf vollmann, institute of linguistics, university of graz, merangasse 70, A-8010 graz, austria, +43/316/380-2419, Ralf.VollmannMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuekfunigraz.ac.at, ralf
kfs.oeaw.ac.at
Was it here that someone recently mentioned "persuade" vs. "convince"? I didn't understand the note. Then this afternoon on an NPR hourly news roundup, the announcer said a Congressional committee (denied subpoena power) "hopes that President Clinton will convince his friends and allies to testify." This sounded odd, and I realized I would have said "persuade"; wondering why, it seemed as though a "that"-complement would call for "convince" and a "to"-complement, "persuade". (In both cases, I think the opposite sounds odd, but it certainly occurs widely.) Is this an example of syntactic conditioning of lexical choice? Or is this something I should have been paying attention to in Jim McCawley's Generative Semantics class 25 years ago? - Peter T. Daniels grammatimMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueworldnet.att.net
I wanted to respond to Ralf Vollman's assertion: >i deny the possibility to observe language change "online" I would point you to the work of William Labov which fairly persuasively demonstrates that one can glean real-time information on language change using a well designed survey method. Using age of respondant as an indicator of time (older speakers fixed their speech patterns further back in the past), though potentially misleading, has yielded meaningful results, often confirmed by follow-up studies several years later. >As the euramerican culture is a patriarchat, i would thus assume that >although a girl that wants to be a girlie and therefore adopts a speech >style identifiable as an ingroup feature of the girlie subculture, she >will succeed in being identified as a girlie, but she will not introduce >language change into english, because she lacks the power of definition >over the whole culture. Leaving aside the potentially controversial assertion about the nature of Euroamerican culture, again Labov's work contradicts the premise. Consistently, young lower-middle class woman are shown to be the vanguard of language change, i.e. features first observed in this group later spread to other socio-linguistic strata. As for the negative reactions of linguists to these "new" features, I think it is not so much a product of school-taught grammar as innate sense of normative speech, i.e. "that type of speech irritates me because it is unlike the way people of _my_ group speak". I have in fact heard people ridiculing someone for speaking "too proper" or using slang terms incorrectly, so I tend to doubt that this normative effect has anything to do with conventional perscriptive grammar, but rather is an expression of natural human "clannishness". - --- Marc HamannMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
>>>>>>. Dennis Baron <debaronMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueuiuc.edu> writes >>>>>>>> [...] We do have attitude and it would be hypocritical to pretend otherwise. The interesting thing is how to factor attitude into description and into linguistic production. <<<<< Or, from what may be another point of view, how to factor our attitudes OUT OF our descriptions of linguistic phenomena. Mark A. Mandel : Senior Linguist : mark
dragonsys.com Dragon Systems, Inc. : speech recognition : +1 617 796-0267 320 Nevada St., Newton, MA 02160, USA : http://www.dragonsys.com/ This document was created by voice with Dragon Systems' NaturallySpeaking.
Lexes's comment that the indefinite article "an" is disappering was, I believe, not a comment on "a" being substituted for "an." Rather, the articles "a," "an," and "the" are all evolving out of English. The dropping of the article began in front of geopolitical terms and acronyms. Note: A) THE UKRAINE > UKRAINE B) THE JAPANESE agree. > JAPANESE agree. C) The UN is waiting. > UN is waiting. These omissions are not only occurring in newspaper headlines, but they can be heard regularly on National Public Radio. In fact, NPR did a story on The Ukraine that mentioned the evolution of the name, and the Ukranian being interviewed said that "Ukraine" without the word "the" made less sense because "Ukraine" means "Borderland." While the artilce dropping started with geopolitical words, it has spread throughout the language. Note: *"I'm going to 99 Cent Store." vs. "I'm going to the 99 Cent Store." I believe that this evolution is a result of the influence of so many speakers of English as their L2 who do not have these articles in their L1. English seems to be adopting the rule that the article is unnecessary. Maybe I'll make a prescriptivist bumper sticker that say, "SAVE THE." Linda MerloMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue