Editor for this issue: Brett Churchill <brett
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A number of respondents have argued against the view of dreams being alinguistic, citing as evidence dreams they had in which the "foreign languages" they dreamt in were actually languages they had a little bit of knowledge of. But it seems to me that unless it can be proved that people have foreign language dreams ONLY in languages they have knowledge of (however little), an odd dream or two in a known language does not provide evidence to counter the alinguistic hypothesis. I myself am a frequent dreamer, and have often had dreams in which I am not the person that I am in real life, and speak fluently the language of the character I become, even though I do not have the slightest knowledge of the language in question. For example, I once dreamt that I was a Russian dancer in a Russian ballet troupe, and that I was conversing with my fellow dancers in fluent Russian, even though in real waking life I had no knowledge of the language at all, other than the fact that if I were to hear the language, say, on TV, I would be able to tell, from consonants, intonations, etc., that it is Russian, and not, say, Polish or Czech. I have also had dreams where the process was self-conscious: I am in a foreign country (don't know what country or what language), and wonder whether I would be able to understand the speech of the people there, but in the end, understanding just happens without knowledge of the language at the linguistic level. Also, I've had dreams in which I communicate with animals, or am an animal myself, and although we (me and my fellow animals) are not speaking English or any other human language that I know of, we are clearly communicating notions to each other, to the extend that the "story" in the dream can proceed without any breakdown in communication. For me, random language dreams of this sort far outnumber dreams I have had in languages I was trying to learn (German, Spanish, Greek -- cannot recall dreams in any). Any views on this? Chris Li University of MinnesotaMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I remember taking German in lower division graduate days, with a great teacher, I might add (though I've now forgotten her name). I remember in my second year of the language dreaming quite vividly one night (I seldom remember dreams) that I was speaking in fluent German to someone else. It was after that that something seemed to "click" about German, and I became more fluent -- phenomenologically, not translating into English anymore but hearing the flow of meaning directly. Of others who have similarly dreamed in an L2, did it seem to be a trigger for incipient fluency? Is language superimposed on waking or, as others suggest, an integral part of the dream itself? Perhaps a refresher on the Cheyenne Tower of Babel teaching would not be out of line: "Long ago, humans and animals and plants and spirits all communicated in the same way. Then something happened. After that, we had to communicate with human speech. BUT -- we retained The Old Language for *dreams,* and communicating with spirits and animals and plants." Dreaming belongs to a different state of consciousness, one that is seldom explored in our culture for actual information. Does it also belong to a different state of Language, one that gets overlooked by our culture? And is it valuable to consider this Old Language for what it can tell us about the flow of meaning in a human as well as transpersonal context? warm regards, moonhawkMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I have had two dreams that I'm aware of during which there was no language use. I do have dreams where my L2 (the primary language of use in the past 19 year is used exclusively; dreams during which L1 is used exclusively; dreams during which the individuals code-switch; dreams during which I use one code, and the other individual(s) use a different code. However, I have awakened form two dreams on two separate occasions during which there was clearly NO language used,but communication was taking place. In fact, I remember the first time around waking up in middle of the dream, apparently quite AMAZED that I was communicating without a language, and I wondered if that sense of amazement is in fact was the cause of my awakening.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Two additions to the list of personal observations: 1) Some dozen years ago, i knew (consciously??) enough German to carry on extended conversations, follow radio news reports, etc, and at that time i would occasionally dream in German as well. But I've hardly used the language since then, and my productive German has dwindled to a handful of sentence structures and high-frequency vocabulary. Coincidentally?, i also haven't had a dream in German in a good 6-7 years. 2) This isn't an L2 observation, but i think it's worth considering in the discussion over whether dreams are linguistic or not. I oftentimes have dreams in which I compose sections of text. If it only happened with prose i'd be willing to believe that it was composition at some higher conceptual or semantic level, but i've done this with verse as well. The most frustrating cases are those where, in my dream, i come up with the line or two i've been digging for--the one that 'sounds right', rhythmically and phonologically--and, on awakening, i can remember some but not all of it (like, i know there were two more syllables at the beginning of that line but i just can't come up with them). Although I can't cite sources off-hand, i have also read of painters dreaming paintings and composers dreaming musical compositions. I would also guess there are architects who dream floorplans and mathematicians or physicists who dream in formulae and equations. I may be roving dangerously far into psychology and cognition here, but I suspect that individuals may differ considerably in whether they experience their dreams as linguistic, visual, auditory, etc., and maybe most of us have various types of dreams on different occasions. This forces one to rephrase slightly the question of whether dreams are linguistic or not. pleasant dreams! laura l. koenig Brooklyn NY Haskins Labs and Long Island University, BrooklynMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
My experience with an L2 and L2 dream occurred while I was linving in France hoping to regain my earlier acquired fluency in French. I am a native speaker of English who learned fairly advanced conversational French as a child. I then studied Spanish intensively and had spent a semester in Mexico for graduate school. Afraid that I would experience French attrition, I went to live in Paris in a foyer de jeunesse where I spent a lot of time speaking Spanish to some fellow residents of the foyer. I recall at night as I was falling asleep that if I turned on one side I would begin pre-sleep dreaming in one language, and that when I turned over to the other side I the same happened with the other. I don't recall whether left was SPanish and right was French (I think that was the case) or the other way around. But I remember wondering whether there was some kind of neurological hemispheric linguistic selection that would account for this type of experience. Kathleen O'ConnorMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue