Editor for this issue: Julie Wilson <julie
linguistlist.org>
"Seth" <jubal33Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueidt.net> writes: >Of course, the only >testimonies we have of both BH and Akkadian are written, but it does not >seem plausible, at least to me, that hypotaxis emerged only as a result of >writing. I appreciate his examples from Semitic, to which can be added a comparison of Homeric and later forms of Greek (esp with respect to the development of complex participial constructions where English, say, uses subordinate clauses). I suppose that Mycenaean also shows the same, unless it is written in a highly elliptical and abbreviated form. If hypotaxis means the form of recursion which allows one clause to be embedded in another, either preserving the same form as a canonical clause or with various changes, then this seems to be a universal property of language belonging to all languages written or spoken There is no reason to believe that languages were different before writing was invented, and that hypotaxis somehow spread since the invention of writing to all known languages (most of which are and always will be unwritten). I do not think there is any understanding of the term "hypotaxis" that can justify Sampson's claim, as reported in Murphy's review. For the influence of writing on language, we might look at the kind of convoluted syntax that only highly literate-and-visually oriented people can produce and that nobody can understand without writing it down from dictation of its pieces and working through it with pencil and paper (and even that doesn't always work). Apart from that, we can see the effects of literacy on such linguistic characterisations of language data as "*movement* to the *left* or *right*"; spatial metaphors based on transforming the temporal originals.